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Exam Code: 1Z1-456
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless
of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child
territory quotas to the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric
defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.2 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment
mappings involving Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal
review, your company decides to no longer base decisions on industry. Your
supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations from the Fusion
Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and
selecting the Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that
already use Industry. Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function;
however no new assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function,
but the concept of Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would
continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a
resolution request. E. This can't be done; assignment objects can’t be set to inactive
if there is a mapping defined using the object
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z1-456   1Z1-456 questions

NO.3 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range
of win probability and status.
Answer: B, E

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NO.4 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can
create active territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the
validation process in Oracle Fusion Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Identify two components of sales coach that can assist in bringing opportunities to a
successful close.
A. recommended documents
B. process steps
C. stalled deal limit
D. task
E. opportunity status
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-807
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Enterprise Edition 6 Enterprise Architect Certified Master Exam (Step 1 of 3))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Your company is creating a Java EE corporate wide workflow system in winch significant
internal
business events are consumed by multiple applications. Due to multi-year development plans,
many of these applications do not exist yet, even at the design stage. IT has defined standard data
formats for these events in the form of small XML documents. Also, the rules for how an
application filters and processes events are not fixed In advance and can change over the life or
the application.
Which combination of technologies is best for distributing and consuming these events throughout
the company?
A. Relational database and JDBC
B. HTTP client library and servlets
C. Remote Method Invocation (RMI) and stateless session beans
D. Java Message Service (JMS) topics and message-driven beans
E. JMS queues and message-driven beans
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are consulting with a team that has maintained several legacy database for years. They
have
reviewed the JPA spec and are wondering if the technology would offer benefits over this current
SQL base.
Which statement identifies a risk of adopting JPA?
A. JPA only works with well-known data models.
B. JPA may be able to model every table as a class.
C. JPA could render code that requires extensive SQL tuning to perform well.
D. JPA’s query language relies on a container to manage the persistence layer.
E. JPA doesn’t provides ACID semantics.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-807   1Z0-807

NO.3 You are the operations architect for a large online retailer. During peak times, your set of
monitored applications exhibits non-reproducible errors. The data center is growing at 50% per
annum, while your team headcount remains constant.
Which method would you use to implement an affective monitoring strategy?
A. Use the Visitor pattern to collect per-JVM statistics and store them centrally.
B. Use the Strategy pattern to encapsulate collection logic for each JVM.
C. Use the Thread Tracker to monitor the JVMs directly.
D. Use the Observer pattern to monitor each JVM directly.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your company provides a marketplace for industrial chemicals. You are required to offer
accurate
pricing and quantities to all marketplace users.
Marketplace users are globally distributed.
What is the most appropriate technology to use to satisfy this requirement?
A. Server-side distribution using JAX-WS
B. Client-side polling using JAX-RPC
C. Web services using REST
D. An enterprise messaging system
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are the architect at ACME, a large a large global retailer of festival and holiday accessories.
ACME wants to launch a new shopping portal for the holiday shopping session, allowing two
months from project inception to going live. The portal must contain in-house and third-party stock
to attack customers.
Fast response times are also critical so users remain engaged and sticky to the portal.
What would you recommend to the ACME project team to deliver this project?
A. Access all third party content using JSONP to dynamically load it from the browser.
B. Access as much content with bulk-loading as possible; use JSONP to access the remainder.
C. Access all content regardless of source using the HTML 5 XML parsing capabilities of the
browser
D. Access all third party content using JSON to dynamically load it from the browser.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are the architect of a web application that uses javaServer Faces (JSF) as a presentation
tier
for business processes coded as stateless session beans. When you add new code to the
stateless session beans to address new accounting requirements, without changing the interface,
you discover that the new business processes are being ignored by some of the JSF components.
What might be the cause of this problem?
A. The presentation tier is relying on validation logic in the business tier.
B. The browser is caching out-of-date versions of the JSF components.
C. The business processes are not rigorously encapsulated in the session beans.
D. The new session beans have been deployed incorrectly, and proper deployment will resolve the
problem.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your CMC wants to move several web based search applications to an AJAX model, hoping to
improve user engagement with a browser experience that feels smaller and more responsive.
Which identifies a drawback to consider when adopting an AJAX model to improve user
experience?
A. Maintaining current performance could require more hardware.
B. Maintaining accessibility across clients may require more development.
C. Maintaining security within the page could be more difficult.
D. Maintaining page navigability for users would have to be re-evaluated.
E. Maintaining a scalable system could require redesigning applications.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this
substantial
load, the database is over bridged and fails frequently. All data, included critical user records and
temporary session data, is stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a new
database system cannot be installed.
Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. Creating more entity beans to optimize interaction wild the database
B. Refactoring the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. Refactoring the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. Adding more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about transport-layer security?
A. It applies to both a message body and its attachments.
B. It is loosely coupled with the transport-layer protocol.
C. It is an end-to-end security mechanism.
D. It prevents the captured data from being replayed at a later time.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about security strategies at the message level?
A. Messages are secured during transport and after arrival at their destination
B. Each portion of a compound message is secured.
C. SSL is required to ensure authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality.
D. Message attachments are secured without the need for a dedicated API.
E. Security is dependent on the application environment or the transport protocol.
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-465
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle RightNow CX Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When an incident is opened, your customer would like to have different workspaces open
based on the six products that can be selected when an incident is submitted from the Ask A
Question customer portal page.
When designing the workflow used to complete this requirement, which three elements are
necessary?
A. Entry Point
B. Load
C. Set Fields
D. Decision
E. Workspace
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 Identify the seven data types that are available as custom fields.
A. Text Area
B. Integer
C. Date Field
D. Currency
E. Date/Time
F. Text Field
G. Yes/No
H. Menu
I. Float
J. Multi Select Menu
Answer: B,C,D,E,F,G,I

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NO.3 Identify the three options available on the deployment screen in customer portal.
A. Rollback
B. Stage
C. Develop
D. Production
E. Promote
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 You customer has added a new interface and requests that you set up three navigation sets
and associate them with three profiles.
You log in with your original credentials and add the navigation sets.
When you edit the profile and select the dropdown for the new navigation set you don't see the
navigation sets you just added.
Why can't you see the navigation set that should be displayed?
A. The profile doesn't have permission to the new interface.
B. You forgot to set the permission in the navigation set for the new interface.
C. The interface was not installed correctly.
D. You added the navigation set in the wrong interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Navigation sets and custom workspaces are associated with profiles. A Profile has to have a Default
Navigation Set.
*The following items must be created before adding profiles.
Navigation sets. Profiles without navigation sets do not allow access to reports and other
components Custom workspaces (optional). If you use custom workspaces, we recommend creating
them before creating profiles so you can assign workspaces to specific profiles.
*The configuration tasks required when starting to use RightNow CX are:
Create Navigation Set
Create Workspace (optional)
Create Profile (associate Navigation Set and Workspace with the Profile)

NO.5 Your customer has requested their salesman to update record in this custom object.
What two settings in the "Salesmen" profile have to be updated to allow them access?
A. Contacts Tab: Select the Edit check box for Sales.
B. Custom Objects Tab: select the Read check box for package Name "CO" and object Name
"Salesman".
C. Service Tab: select the Add/Edit check box for incidents.
D. Custom Objects Tab: select the update check box for package Name "CO" and object name
"Salesmen"
E. Add a workspace for the Salesmen custom object.
F. Sales Tab: select the Edit check box opportunities.
G. Update the workspace for Opportunities.
Answer: D,E

Oracle   1Z0-465   1Z0-465

NO.6 Your customer has asked you to create a report that shows all incidents opened within the
past month.
The report should show the following columns:
-Numberofincidents opened inthepast month
-Numberofincidents opened in the pastweek
-Numberofincidents openedin the pastday
Which two functions are needed in the expressions to create the three columns?
A. NVL
B. AVG
C. IF
D. DECODE
E. SUM
Answer: C,E

Oracle   1Z0-465 test   1Z0-465   1Z0-465
Explanation:
Incorrect:
Not A:In Oracle/PLSQL, the NVL function lets you substitute a value when a null value is
encountered.
Not D:DECODEcomparesexprto eachsearchvalue one by one. Ifexpris equal to asearch, then Oracle
Database returns the correspondingresult. If no match is found, then Oracle returnsdefault.
If default is omitted, then Oracle returns null.

NO.7 Identify the four guidelines that are relevant with regard to web accessibility.
A. Support increased text sizes.
B. Ensure color alone is not used to convey content.
C. Avoid background sound.
D. Ensure no underlined content exists.
E. Provide multiple methods for finding content.
F. Ensure all alternate text is unused.
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.8 Your customer has performed a search on the knowledgebase and has stated that they are
getting strange results. Every time they search for the word "widget" the correct answer appears as
the 10th answer on the search results and not at the top of the first page.
How can you increase the value of the word "widget" In the knowledgebase search results?
A. Assign all products and categories to the knowledgebase answer.
B. Set the display position to "Fix at top."
C. Set the display position to "Place at top."
D. Add the search term to the keyword field of the knowledgebase answer.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-465 exam simulations   1Z0-465
Explanation:
Incorrect: Not B: would ensure that widget would always be at the top over every list, but the value
of the word would not be affected.

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Exam Name: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional intermediate exam)
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NO.1 To what does an internal structure of a class refer?
A. the inheritance structure of that class
B. the set of nested classifiers of that class
C. the set of structural features of that class
D. class and associations owned by that class
E. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
Answer: E

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NO.2 What does the composite structure exhibit show?
A. The diagram is not valid.
B. The two F interfaces must come from different packages.
C. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 can be distinguished.
D. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 will always result in the same
behavior.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What best describes the distinction between a delegation connector and an assembly connector?
A. A delegation connector can be used to model the internals of a component, while an assembly
connector cannot.
B. Assembly connectors provide white box views of components, while delegation connectors provide
black box views.
C. An assembly connector connects two components while a delegation connector connects the internal
contract of a component with its external parts.
D. An assembly connector connects the required interface or required port of one component with the
provided interface or provided port of another component, while a delegation connector connects the
external contract of a component with its internal parts.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which must be true in order to use a delegation connector to connect two components?
A. The components must have complex ports.
B. One component must be a subtype of the other.
C. The components must be related to each other via a dependency.
D. One component must be part of the internal realization of the other component.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which is true of a provided interface associated with a port?
A. represents an interface that must be defined within the classifier that owns the port
B. identifies the services that the object owning the port expects of objects connected via that port
C. identifies the services that the object owning the port can offer to other objects connected via that port
D. represents an interface that must be defined in the same package in which the classifier owning the
port is defined
Answer: C

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NO.6 A component may legally participate in which relationship(s)?
A. dependencies
B. associations and generalizations
C. dependencies and generalizations
D. dependencies, associations, and generalizations
Answer: D

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NO.7 What statements are true about a composite structure? (Choose two)
A. Collaborations are structured classifiers.
B. A structured classifier is also an encapsulated classifier.
C. Structured classifiers cannot contain instances of structured classifiers.
D. Destroying an instance of a structured classifier normally destroys instances of its parts.
E. The behavior of a structured classifier must be completely defined through the collaboration of owned
or referenced instances.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 How can the internals of a component be presented?
A. using a complex component connector
B. component provides port or a component requires port
C. in a compartment of the component box or a component requires port
D. in a compartment of the component box or via boxes nested within the component box
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is an invocation action on a port used for?
A. sending a message to that port
B. receiving a message on that port
C. creating a link and attach it to that port
D. relaying the invocation via links connected to that port
E. invoking the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
Answer: D

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NO.10 What interface restrictions does a port have?
A. multiple required interfaces or multiple provided interfaces
B. multiple provided interfaces and multiple required interfaces
C. equal numbers of provided interfaces and required interfaces
D. exactly one provided interface or exactly one required interface
E. exactly one required interface and exactly one provided interface
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which list contains only connectable elements?
A. port and connector end
B. behavior, port and property
C. connector end, port and part
D. property, port, and parameter
E. behavior, connector end, and port
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is NOT true about a roles and role bindings?
A. A role binding is an association.
B. The same object may play roles in multiple collaborations.
C. A role binding maps a connectable element to a role in a collaboration occurrence.
D. The same connectable element may be bound to multiple roles in a single collaboration occurrence.
E. A role typed by an interface specifies a set of features required by a participant in a collaboration.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is NOT a purpose of a port owned by a classifier?
A. serves as an end point for connectors
B. specifies an association to the classifier
C. hides the internals of that classifier from other classifiers
D. provides a distinct point of interaction between the classifier and its environment
Answer: B

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NO.14 What best describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
A. This is an illegal diagram.
B. The OrderEntity component is part of the internals of the Invoicer component.
C. The Invoicer has a complex connector that connects the GenerateInvoice interface with the Order
interface.
D. The Invoicer has a complex port that provides the interface GenerateInvoice and requires the interface
Order.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol
extends downward rather than leftward?
A. There is no significance.
B. The interface cannot be provided via a port.
C. The interface does not require a delegation connector.
D. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.
E. The interface is the primary interface for the component.
F. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Refer to the exhibit. How many interfaces does the CustomerService component make visible to its
clients?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: D

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NO.17 An encapsulated classifier is characterized by which fact?
A. has an encapsulation shell
B. can own one or more ports
C. hides information from other classifiers
D. acts as a package and can own one or more classifiers
Answer: B

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NO.18 What does the composite structure notation in the exhibit mean?
A. Class C has internal structure.
B. Object c1 is a kind of component.
C. Port p is connected to an object called F.
D. Port p realizes the features defined by interface F.
E. Port p requires the features defined by interface F.
Answer: E

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NO.19 What most accurately describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
A. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator realize Invoicer.
B. Invoicer realizes HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator.
C. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator are Invoicer ports.
D. An Invoicer component is composed of a HeaderGenerator component and a LineItemGenerator
component.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Assume component A provides an interface P and requires an interface R. In order for a component
B to be substituted for component A, what must be true?
A. Components must be related to each other via a dependency.
B. The interface that A requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that B provides.
C. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
D. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A requires, and
the interface that B provides must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which statement about merging NDS trees is valid?
A. Time does not need to be synchronized for the merge to be successful.
B. All server in the target tree ***** of the target [Root] get removed from the new [Root]'s replica list
C. The server that contained the master replica of the source tree [Root] receives a read/write replica of
the new [Root].
D. All servers in the tree must receive a replica of [Root] of the tree they are in before the merge process
can be started.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which file can you view to identify the default filter exceptions to the BorderManger filters?
A. FILE.TXT
B. ALLFILT.TXT
C. FILTEXCP.TXT
D. The file specified by the user when filters are saved to a text file.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the message content of a type 31CMP packet?
A. Echo Reply
B. Time Exceeded
C. Parameter Problem
D. Address Mask Reply
E. Destination Unreachable
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding NDS rights after merging them? (Choose two.)
A. The trustee list (ACL) of the source tree [Root] is discard.
B. The admin object in the target tree loses all rights to [Root]
C. The source NDS tree user object used in the merge **** granted Supervisor object rights to the entire
new NDS tree.
D. The target server object will be granted rights to ****** of new NDS tree.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 In a time provider group, which server carries the *** ***voting on a time?
A. Primary
B. Reference
C. Secondary
D. Single reference
Answer: B

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NO.6 By default, if a NetWare server is synchronization on the network, how frequently does it check for time?
A. Every 3 minutes
B. Every 5 minutes
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 15 minutes
E. Every 20 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which utilities allow you to change the time synchronization type for a server? (Choose two.)
A. MONITOR.NLM
B. NDS Manager
C. DSREPAIR.NLM
D. NetWare Administrator
E. The SET parameters at the server console
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which time server***** is the default configuration for the second or subsequent servers installed in the
tree?
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Secondary
E. Single reference
Answer: D

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NO.9 By default, when is a server *** *not being synchronized to the network?
A. When it's more than one seconds different than the network time.
B. When it's more than two seconds different than the network time.
C. When it's more than three seconds different than the
D. When it's more than four seconds different than the network time.
E. When it's more than five seconds different than the network time.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are benefits of using BorderManager proxy acceleration? (Choose 2.)
A. Web server IP addresses are kept hidden from the Internet
B. Workstation IP addresses are kept hidden from the Internet
C. Cached web pages are delivered to your internal users 60% faster
D. Workstations can access the Internet without having full IP support installed
E. On proxy server can act as several web servers *** ** fault to tolerance
Answer: A,E

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NO.11 Which statement is true about a single reference time server?
A. It gets its time from a reference time server.
B. It does not advertise itself as a time provider.
C. It cannot coexist with primary or other reference servers.
D. It must have another reference or primary server to negotiate time with.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statement about the BorderManager 3.5 installation process is true?
A. NETBASIC.NLM must be loaded on the server prior to installation.
B. You must configure your servers and clients to use TCP/IP prior to installation.
C. Installation can be done remotely using RCONSOLE with the CD mounted on your local machine.
D. You can install on a remote server If you copy the contents of the CD to a mounted volume on that
server.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which time servers participate in voting for the correct time? (Choose two.)
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Single reference
E. Secondary reference
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 What needs to be done to allow servers to find any time server rega******f the tree it's in?
A. Set Directory tree mode to off
B. Set timesync restart flag to on
C. Set Service Advertising Protocol to off
D. Set the default time server type to reference
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have been asked to troubleshoot your client's issue of timeout synchronized throughout the
network. Your client has five servers in the tree located at their headquarters. The time configuration for
each server is as follows. Time server type Configured lists Serv1 Single reference off Serv2 Primary off
Serv3 Secondary off Serv4 Secondary off Serv5 Secondary off What is preventing time from being
synchronized?
A. There needs to be more than one primary time ***
B. Configured Lists needs to be turned on *** **
C. Configured Lists needs to be turned on *** ** secondary servers.
D. A single reference time server cannot co-exist on the primary time server.
E. Configured Lists needs to be turned **** primary and single reference server.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which tasks are involved in defining a security policy? (Choose 3)
A. Limit access
B. Identify the threats
C. Compare software solutions
D. Identify network resources
E. Analyze organizational performance
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.17 Your company has six NetWare 5 servers (Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5 and Serv6. One use
NetWare 3.12 (Serv7) server. This tree has only one existing partition, the [Root] partition. The servers
were installed in the following order Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6. You have just finished
upgrading Serv7 to NetWare 5. Which servers hold a replica of the [Root] partition? (Choose four.)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
G. Serv7
Answer: A,B,C,G

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NO.18 What system is used to adjust different time zones to get an equivalent time for time synchronization?
A. Time stamps
B. Standard time
C. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
D. Daylight saving time offset
E. Universal Time Coordinated (UTC)
Answer: E

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NO.19 Which time server types advertise that they are a time provider? (Choose 3.)
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Secondary
E. Single reference
F. Secondary reference
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.20 Which statement about time synchronization is true?
A. Time synchronization is a service that records time changes at the server console.
B. Time synchronization is a service that maintains consistent time throughout the network.
C. Time synchronization is a service that determines the correct time throughout the network.
D. Time synchronization is a service that records changes in time security events throughout the network.
Answer: B

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NO.21 You have installed the first NetWare 5 server for your company and accepted all default settings. What
type of time server is the server?
A. Primary
B. Reference
C. Secondary
D. Single reference
E. Secondary reference
Answer: D

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NO.22 In an IPX environment, which methods do servers use to find each other to synchronization? (Choose
two.)
A. TCP/IP
B. NTP.NLM
C. Configured lists
D. Service Advertising Protocol (SAP)
E. NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP)
Answer: C,D

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NO.23 Which statement is true regarding secondary time server types? (Choose two.)
A. They do not participate in voting for time.
B. They must get their time form a primary server.
C. They adjust their time 50% to match the established network time.
D. By default, they use configured lists to direct them to which server to get time.
E. They can get their time form single reference, reference, primary, and secondary servers.
Answer: A,E

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NO.24 .You are the NDS expert in your company. You are getting ready to merge the EMA_2 tree into the
EMA tree. You are using Servl from the EMA_2 tree *** from the EMA tree to perform the merge. The
following is the partition and replica listing for each tree. EMA_2 [Root] EMA [Root] Serv1 Master Serv2
Read/write Serv3 Read/write Serv4 Master Serv5 Read/write Serv6 Read/write Which Server will get a
replica of the [Root] partition after the merge? (Choose four.)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
Answer: A,D,E,F

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NO.25 You are trying to determine if NAT is working. Which server console command to be used to determine
if filters are configured to deny outgoing IP packets?
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. INETCFG
D. FILTCFG
E. NIASCFG
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which statement is true regarding reference time server?
A. It does not advertise itself *** ** provider.
B. It cannot coexist with other primary time servers.
C. It gets its time from a single *** *** time server.
D. It negotiates time with primary time server, but does not adjust its internal clock.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which tasks are involved in defining a security policy? (Choose 3)
A. Impalement a VPN
B. Identify the threats
C. Compare software solutions
D. Identify network resources
E. Identify unauthorized access
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.28 If a secondary time server is not synchronized to a single reference time server *** percentage of the
time difference does the secondary time server make during the next polling process?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
Answer: E

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NO.29 You have installed the first four servers in your company's NDS tree. You accepted all time defaults
when installing. What type of time servers exist in your tree?
A. 1 primary and 3 secondaries
B. 1 reference and 3 secondaries
C. 1 single reference and 3 secondaries
D. 1 reference, 2 primaries, and 1 secondary
E. 1 single reference, 1 primary, and 2 secondaries
Answer: C

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NO.30 CORRECT TEXT
Exhibit
Given the
information in the graphic, how many proxy access requests have been satisfied by requesting the
information from the source web server? (Enter the number.)
Answer: 3

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Exam Code: 050-684
Exam Name: Novell (Novell eDirectory Tools and Diagnostics )
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Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A. Master
B. Master and read-only
C. Master and read/write
D. Master, read/write, and read-only
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which are true statements when using the eDirectory Backup eMTool to back up and
restore Novell eDirectory 8.7? (Choose two.)
A. You can backup an attribute of just one object.
B. You can do a quick restore of an individual server.
C. You must be inside the firewall to do a backup or restore.
D. You can backup files on the server that are related to the database.
E. You should not backup your server until eDirectory has been shut down.
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 Which Web-based utilities can you use to perform diagnostics and manage eDirectory 8.7?
A. iMonitor and iManager
B. iMonitor and Rconsole
C. iManager and ConsoleOne
D. iMonitor and Server Console Manager
E. iManager and Server Console Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 You created a new application object in the SLC.DigitalAir partition. After creating the
object you noticed a problem when running a health check. Using the information in the
exhibits, what is the best solution to try first?
A. Reset schema on the DA1 server.
B. Reset schema on the DA2 server.
C. Remove all replicas from the DA1 server.
D. Remove all replicas from the DA2 server.
E. Declare a new epoch on the Schema partition.
F. Remove eDirectory from the DA1 server and re-install.
G. Remove eDirectory from the DA2 server and re-install.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The steps used to process obituaries
B. The types of objects that can be created
C. The number of objects allowed in a partition
D. The locations an object can exist in the tree
E. What types of replicas can be held on a server
F. The total number of replicas that can be held by a server
G. The information that must be entered and maintained for specific objects
Answer: B, D, G

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NO.6 In an eDirectory 8.7 environment, the capabilities of which utilities are included in
iManager? (Choose two.)
A. DSVIEW
B. DSTRACE
C. DSMERGE
D. DSREPAIR
E. DSBROWSE
Answer: C, D

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NO.7 Which utilities can be used to view the schema synchronization process? (Choose two.)
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. MONITOR.NLM
E. DSTRACE.NLM
Answer: A, E

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NO.8 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers can you use to make
modifications to the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are the system administrator for the SLC DigitalAir container. You are creating some
new user objects in this container. Which statements are true regarding the eDirectory
rights for these new users? (Choose two.)
A. The rights for the SLC.DigitalAir container has to itself will affect the new users.
B. The default rights granted to the new users depends on the tool used to create them.
C. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are manually assigned.
D. Tue new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template.
E. The schema information for the user class will grant the new users some default eDirectory
rights.
F. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template or
have rights manually assigned.
Answer: B, F

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NO.10 Which X.500 Directory component replicates information from one Directory Information
Database to another?
A. The Directory System Agent
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Access Protocol
D. The Directory Information Tree
E. The Directory Information Shadow Protocol
Answer: E

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NO.11 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The roles of different replica types
B. The syntax of the login script attribute
C. The steps used to process obituaries
D. The types of objects that can be created
E. The information required for an object to exist
F. The number of associations allowed for an object
G. The total number of replicas that can exist on a server
Answer: D, E, F

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NO.12 When a non-local object authenticates or attaches to a server, eDirectory creates a
placeholder for this object. What is this placeholder called?
A. Backlink
B. Obituary
C. Attribute
D. Remote object
E. External reference
Answer: E

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NO.13 Performing which partition operation will never cause the number of real objects in any
server's eDirectory database to change?
A. Move
B. Merge
C. Create
D. Add Replica
E. Remove Replica
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statements are true regarding transitive synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. The transitive vector attribute is not a synchronized attribute.
B. Transitive synchronization updates replicas in a sequential order.
C. The transitive vector attribute is located on any partition root object.
D. Transitive synchronization does not require a server to be able to talk with every server in the
replica ring.
E. Transitive synchronization allows subordinate references to participate in a normal replica
synchronization.
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 If a Directory System Agent cannot fulfill a request of a Directory User Agent, which X.500
directory component passes the information to another Directory System Agent?
A. The Directory Access Protocol
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Information Tree
D. The Directory Information Database
E. The Directory Information Shadowing Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B. Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A C

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NO.17 You are the eDirector administrator for the DigitalAir-Tree tree. You would like to move
some containers in your tree to align the tree structure more closely to the physical
structure of your organization. Given the information in the exhibits, without manually
changing any partition boundaries or replica placement, which containers can be moved?
A. Only the TICKETING container
B. The SLC, SYD and LGA containers
C. The SYD, LGA and CUSTSVC containers
D. All containers except DigitalAir-Tree and DigitalAir
E. The CUSTSVC, FLIGHTOPS, SYD and TICKETING containers.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. The master replica controls the obituary process through the janitor process.
B. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control partition boundary changes.
C. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control creating, deleting, and moving objects.
D. The subordinate reference replica is the only replica that cannot be manually created by the
network administrator.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate references contain a complete copy of all
object information of the partition.
Answer: A, D

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NO.19 When upgrading your first server to eDirectory 8.7, you may need to update the eDirectory
schema. On which server should the schema be updated?
A. The server you are upgrading to eDirectory 8.7.
B. The server that has a replica of the [Root] partition.
C. Any server that holds a replica of any partition of the tree.
D. A server that holds the master replica of any partition of the tree.
Answer: B

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NO.20 RThomas is logging in to the DA4 server. The DA4 server does not hold a replica of the
partition where RThomas' user object exists. An external reference is created on the DA4
server containing information about RThomas user object. On the server with a replica of
the partition containing RThomas eDirectory also attempts to create an attribute pointing
to the DA4 server.
What is the name of this attribute?
A. Janitor
B. Obituary
C. Backlink
D. Flat cleaner
E. External reference
Answer: C

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NO.21 The DA3 server is preparing to synchronize schema. What servers will DA3 send schema
synchronization information to?
A. Only servers in DA3's poll list
B. All servers in the same tree as DA3
C. All servers sharing replica rings with DA3
D. Only servers in replica rings where DA3 is the Master
Answer: D

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NO.22 You are using the eMBox client to log into a server. The information required for login is
as follows:
- server's IP address is 10.0.0.1
- port number is 8008
- context for admin is slc.digitalair
-password is novell.
Given this information, what is the appropriate syntax to login from the eMBox client?
A. login 10.0.0.1:8008; admin.slc.digitalair.novell:
B. login admin.slc.digitalair:novell 10.0.0.1:8008
C. login 10.0.0.1:8008 admin.slc.digitalair novell
D. login 10.0.0.1:8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
E. login -s 10.0.0.1 -p 8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
Answer: E

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NO.23 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers will hold a replica of
the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Filtered replica
E. Subordinate reference
Answer: E

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NO.25 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references only contain the partition root object.
B. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
C. Subordinate references can be manually created by the administrator.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A, B

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NO.26 Your eDirectory tree doesn't change often. On average, about once every three months
partition changes are made as servers are added to the tree. There are very few additions,
deletions or modifications of objects. In general, how often should you perform a health
check on this tree?
A. Once a week
B. Once a month
C. Once every three months
D. Only when partition changes are made
E. When objects have been added or deleted
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which replica type can fill original requests for object changes but passes off all partition
requests?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Subordinate reference
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references contain only the partition root object.
B. Master and read/write replicas are the only replicas that are automatically created.
C. A master or read/write replica must reside on a server where bindery services is used.
D. Subordinate references can be promoted to be the master replica without causing problems to the
NDS tree.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference replicas can be manually created by
the network administrator.
Answer: A, C

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NO.29 Which statements regarding the extensible match feature of eDirectory 8.7 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. eDirectory 8.7 currently only supports an exact value match.
B. eDirectory 8.7 supports matching rules in the extensible match filter.
C. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of ACL attributes in a search via the extensible match
filter.
D. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of the distinguished name attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
E. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of partition-specific attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
Answer: A D

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NO.30 Which are default settings for an eDirectory 8.7 tree structure? (Choose 3.)
A. A Single Organization Unit object is created.
B. Three Organizational Unit objects are created.
C. eDirectory keeps the tree as one single partition.
D. The database if replicated to the first three servers running eDirectory.
E. The Admin, Server and Volume objects are created as children of [Root].
Answer: A, C, D

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Exam Code: 050-701
Exam Name: Novell (Upgrading t Novell Open Enterprise Server for NetWare)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 167 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 As a part of the In-Place Upgrade process; what command is used to mount the OES NetWare
Operating System CD as a volume on a NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD CDROM.NSS
C.LOAD CD9660.NSS
D.LOAD CD9660.NLM
E.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
F.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
G.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Answer: C

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NO.2 When attempting an In-Place Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server with Support Pack 5, the upgrade
process fails. Which is the cause?
A.NetWare 5.1 servers can't be upgraded; you must use the Migration Wizard.
B.You must apply Support Pack 8 or later to upgrade a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare.
C.You can't use an In-Place Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 Server; you must perform a Remote Upgrade.
D.You can't use an In-Place Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server; you must perform a Down-Server
Upgrade.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does the View and Update NDS option in Deployment Manager do?
A.Upgrades existing versions of NDS in the tree to eDirectory.
B.Copies a new version of DS.NLM and SGUID.NLM to NetWare 4 servers in the tree.
C.Places a Read/Write replica of the root partition on all existing servers in the tree.
D.Patches existing servers in the tree to a revision level compatible with the version of eDirectory used by
OES NetWare.
E.Locates servers that are running incompatible versions of Directory Services and removes them from
the tree.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Given that your workstation's CD drive is assigned drive letter D, what is the Migration Wizard 8.1
location and filename?
A.D:\MIGRTWZD.EXE
B.D:\MIGRTWZD81.EXE
C.D:\PRODUCTS\SCMT.EXE
D.D:\INSTALL\MIGRTWZD81.EXE
E.D:\PRODUCTS\MGRTWZD\SCMT.EXE
F.D:\PRODUCTS\MIGRATION_UTILITIES\SCMT.EXE
Answer: F

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NO.5 A.UNLOAD BLNK
B.DSTRACE -BLNK
C.DSTRACE BLNK OFF
D.DSTRACE BLNK STOP
E.DSTRACE BLNK OFF STAY RESIDENT
Answer: B

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NO.6 While migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare using a Windows 2000 Professional
workstation with Service Pack 2 and Novell Client 4.83 installed, the migration fails. What is the cause of
the problem?
A.Windows 2000 Professional isn't compatible with the Migration Wizard.
B.NMAS must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.83 to work with the Migration Wizard.
C.The Migration Wizard requires the Novell Client 4.91 or later be installed on the workstation.
D.The Migration Wizard requires NICI 2.0.2 be installed on a Windows 2000 Professional workstation.
E.The Migration Wizard requires Service Pack 4 or later be installed on a Windows 2000 Professional
workstation.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which commands are used to start and stop the Public Instance of Tomcat on an OES NetWare server?
(Choose 2.)
A.tcstop.ncf
B.tomcat4.ncf
C.tc4stop.ncf
D.tcstart.ncf
E.tc4start.ncf
F.tomcat4stop.ncf
Answer: BC

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NO.8 When you upgrade a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare, what happens to the Enterprise Web
Server running on the NetWare 5.1 server?
A.It is reconfigured to use IP ports 81 and 444.
B.It is reconfigured to use a secondary IP address.
C.It is used to provide OES NetWare web services instead of Apache Web Server.
D.It is removed and its configuration parameters are migrated to the Apache Web Server's configuration
file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your organization has three eDirectory trees; one for each functional group in your organization. One
tree runs on NetWare 5.1 servers; the others run on NetWare 6.0 servers. You've just installed a high-end
OES NetWare server and want to consolidate all the servers in the disparate trees to the new server using
the Novell NetWare Server Consolidation Utility. Can this be done?
A.Yes, the network meets the prerequisite requirements.
B.No, the Server Consolidation Utility can't consolidate servers residing in different trees.
C.No, NetWare 6.0 servers can't be consolidated to an OES NetWare server using the Server
Consolidation Utility.
D.No, NetWare 5.1 servers can't be consolidated to an OES NetWare server using the Server
Consolidation Utility.
E.No, you can't consolidate servers of mixed versions to an OES NetWare server using the Server
Consolidation Utility.
Answer: A

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NO.10 While upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare, you see "Unable to Copy File" error messages
on the screen. After the upgrade is complete, you can't boot the operating system. Which are the most
probable causes of this problem? (Choose 2.)
A.Files in the C:\Nwserver directory were flagged Read-Only.
B.An obsolete support pack was installed on the NetWare 5.1 server.
C.The .HAM storage driver was out of date on the NetWare 5.1 server.
D.The server's BIOS needs to be updated to the latest firmware version.
E.The .CDM hard disk device driver was out of date on the NetWare 5.1 server.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which operating system uses a version of NDS or eDirectory that is incompatible with OES NetWare?
A.NetWare 3.2
B.NetWare 4.1
C.NetWare 4.2
D.NetWare 5.0
E.NetWare 5.1
F.NetWare 6.0
Answer: B

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NO.12 What steps do you need to take to prepare a Windows 2000 or XP Professional workstation to run the
Migration Wizard? (Choose 2.)
A.Disable burst mode in the Novell Client.
B.Disable file caching in the Novell Client.
C.Verify that Microsoft SQL Server is installed.
D.Install Microsoft Data Access Components 2.8 or later.
E.Disable the Auto Reconnect parameter in the Novell Client.
F.Verify that Microsoft .NET Framework Version 1.1 is installed.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 Click the Point and Click button to begin.
Click the iManager task used to move and split NSS volumes.
Answer: Select ° Vo l u m e

NO.14 If a NetWare 4.1 server exists in the tree where you plan to install an OES NetWare server, what must
you do?
A.Remove the server from the tree.
B.Use the View and Update NDS option in Deployment Manager.
C.Use the Extend the Core Schema option in Deployment Manager.
D.Use the Prepare for New eDirectory option in Deployment Manager.
E.Use the Generate GUIDs on NetWare 4 Servers option in Deployment Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.15 How do you perform an In-Place Upgrade?
A.Use iManager 2.0 or later to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
B.Use NetWare Deployment Manager to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
C.Mount the OES NetWare Operating System CD; then select Novell > Install to begin the upgrade.
D.Boot the server from the OES NetWare Operating System CD and manually execute INSTALL.BAT with
the /UPGRADE switch.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 1 to OES NetWare. The server hardware
uses dual Pentium II 400 MHz CPUs, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a 200 MB DOS partition,
and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, OES NetWare requires PIII 750 MHz CPUs or later.
C.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
D.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
E.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
F.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 5 or later applied.
Answer: F

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NO.17 How do you perform a Down-Server Upgrade?
A.Use iManager 2.0 or later to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
B.Use NetWare Deployment Manager to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
C.Mount the OES NetWare Operating System CD; then select Novell > Install to begin the upgrade.
D.Boot the server from the OES NetWare Operating System CD and manually execute INSTALL.BAT with
the /UPGRADE switch.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which OES NetWare service allows users to find and restore deleted files without help desk support?
A.iSCSI
B.iFolder
C.Virtual Office
D.Identity Manager
E.Archive and Versioning
F.Novell File Access Protocols
Answer: E

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NO.19 Which OES NetWare component enables script-based management of the network?
A.NXBit Support
B.bash Shell Support
C.ZENworks Management Daemon
D.Common Information Model Support
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which are prerequisite requirements for using Deployment Manager? (Choose 2.)
A.NetWare 6.5 or later installed on the server.
B.Windows 98 or later installed on the workstation.
C.eDirectory 8.7.3 or later installed on the server.
D.Windows 2000 or later installed on the workstation.
E.A Read/Write replica of the tree's root partition on the server.
Answer: DE

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NO.21 After upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare, you can't mount volume DATA. Given that
DATA is an NSS volume, which command will fix the problem?
A.LOAD NW51.NSS
B.LOAD ZLSS.NSS
C.VCU DATA DATA2
D.VOLMN DATA DATA2
E.NSS /NW51VOLUMEUPGRADE=ON
F.NSS /ZLSSVOLUMEUPGRADE=ALL
G.NSS /NW51VOLUMEUPGRADE=ALL
Answer: F

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NO.22 Which utility is used to verify that each server has the cryptographic keys necessary to securely
communicate with the other servers in the tree?
A.SECURE.NLM
B.CONFIG.NLM
C.SDIDIAG.NLM
D.MONITOR.NLM
E.PKICHECK.NLM
F.SDINOTES.NLM
G.SECUREDIAG.NLM
Answer: C

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NO.23 If a NetWare 4.2 server exists in the tree where you plan to install an OES NetWare server, what must
you do?
A.Implement Universal Password.
B.Remove the server from the tree.
C.Run Deployment Manager and select the Prepare for CIFS/AFP option.
D.Run Deployment Manager and select the Generate GUIDs on NetWare 4 Servers option.
E.Run Deployment Manager and select the Update Certificate Authority Objects option.
Answer: D

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NO.24 While upgrading a NetWare 6 server to OES NetWare, the following error message has been
displayed
on the server:
"Error Binding IP to AMD_PCI1. Make sure this card's IP address is not already in use."
The server has hung and you can't complete the upgrade. What caused this to happen?
A.An incorrect board name has been assigned to the network interface.
B.The wrong .LAN driver has been loaded for the server's network board.
C.The same IP address is being assigned twice to the same network board.
D.The latest support pack has not been installed on the NetWare 6 server.
E.Your server's startup files were stored in a directory named something other than "C:\Nwserver".
Answer: E

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NO.25 Which OES NetWare component automates the download and installation of NetWare updates?
A.VIM Support
B.bash Support
C.NXBit Support
D.ZENworks Red Carpet Daemon
E.Common Information Model Support
Answer: D

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NO.26 After upgrading a NetWare 6.5 server to OES NetWare, the iPrint service on the server can no longer
distribute its iPrint printers to network clients. Which file should you locate and rename to "IPP.conf" to fix
this problem?
A.IPP.$$$
B.IPP.conf.new
C.IPP.conf.old
D.IPP.conf.OES
Answer: A

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NO.27 Given that your workstation's CD drive is assigned drive letter D, which is the correct file name and
location for the NetWare Deployment Manager executable?
A.D:\NWDEPLOY.EXE
B.D:\OESNWDEPLOY.EXE
C.D:\TOOLS\NWDEPLOY.EXE
D.D:\INSTALL\NWDEPLOY.EXE
E.D:\PRODUCTS\NWDEPLOY.EXE
Answer: A

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NO.28 You are migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare. The source server name is DA36 and is
located in FINANCE.SLC.DA in the DA-TREE. You install the pre-migration OES NetWare server as
DA36 located in .DA in the TEMP-TREE. Why will the migration fail?
A.The source tree name must be the same as the destination tree name.
B.The source server name can't be the same as the destination server name.
C.The source server context must be the same as the destination server context.
D.You must first upgrade the NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare 6.0; then migrate it to OES NetWare.
E.The source tree name and the server context must be the same as the destination tree name and
server context.
Answer: B

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NO.29 What is the value of the last byte of a computer's NetBIOS name if the system functions as a
workstation?
A.00
B.20
C.1C
D.Null
Answer: A

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NO.30 When performing a Default Installation of OES NetWare, which parameters are configured
automatically by the installation program? (Choose 2.)
A.Codepage 437
B.VGA video mode
C.4 GB SYS volume
D.4 GB DATA volume
E.Basic NetWare File Server patterned deployment
Answer: AC

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