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Exam Code: 1Y0-A26
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix XenServer 6.0 Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator is unable to connect to a resource pool in a XenServer environment in
which high availability is enabled. The administrator discovers that the host is unreachable. What does
the administrator need to do to recover the host?
A. Run the pool-disable command, then the host-shutdown command and then restart the host.
B. Run the pool-disable command, then run the pool-emergency-reset-master command and restart the
host.
C. Run the emergency-ha-disable command, then once the host is restarted, run the pool-ha-enable
command.
D. Run the host-evacuate command, then restart the host and run the pool-emergency-transition-to-
master command.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Scenario: An administrator configured XenServer Role Based Access Control (RBAC) to authenticate
using Active Directory. Using RBAC, the administrator must grant Level 2 Support users with permission
to start and stop virtual machines. Which two steps must the administrator take to grant Level 2 Support
users virtual machine permissions? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a role to the subject.
B. Add an Active Directory group to the pool.
C. Assign XenServer permissions to a group.
D. Add users and their roles to the authorized list of users.
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Scenario: An administrator notices a duplex mismatch on the network interface card (NIC) which is
configured as the management interface. The administrator realizes that the switch was set to 100 full,
but XenServer auto-configured the NIC to 100 half, autoneg=on. How can the administrator ensure the
XenServer host does NOT auto-configure the NIC in the future?
A. Change the NIC properties in the xsconsole.
B. Use the xe pif-configure-ip command to disable auto-configuration.
C. Use the xe pif-param-set command to set other-config:ethtool-autoneg=off.
D. Assign a new NIC to the management interface within the XenCenter Network tab.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator is planning to apply an update that has already been downloaded to a XenServer host
in production. What is the next step that the administrator needs to take in the update process?
A. Restart the host.
B. Generate the UUID for the patch.
C. Specify the UUIDs of the host and the patch.
D. Shut down, suspend or migrate the virtual machines running on the host.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: To improve performance and increase security, a network team will be moving all XenServer
hosts into a more secure, and high resiliency subnet. The administrator must now change the subnet
mask on all XenServer hosts to match the new network: 172.16.0.0/16. Which command will the
administrator need to execute on each host?
A. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=dhcp netmask=255.255.0.0
B. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=static netmask=255.255.0.0
C. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=dhcp netmask=172.16.0.0/16
D. xe pif-reconfigure-ip uuid= mode=static netmask=172.16.0.0/16
Answer: B

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NO.6 When starting up a XenServer from SAN, the BIOS of the ___________ contains the instructions that
enable the host to find the boot disk. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. host machine
B. array controller
C. host bus adapter
D. network interface card
Answer: C

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NO.7 Scenario: In an environment with high availability enabled, an administrator discovered that a host is
unreachable in a XenServer pool. The administrator disabled high availability in order to make the host
reachable. Which xe CLI command can the administrator run to make the host reachable again?
A. host-disable
B. host-evacuate
C. pool-designate-new-master
D. pool-emergency-reset-master
Answer: D

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NO.8 Scenario: An administrator is moving a XenServer host from the New York datacenter to the London
datacenter. During the installation of XenServer, the default NTP settings were selected. How must the
administrator ensure that the XenServer host has the correct time settings?
A. Configure the time in the host BIOS.
B. Configure the time zone in the ntp.conf file.
C. Change the time zone using the xsconsole.
D. Change the NTP servers to the London NTP servers.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Scenario: An administrator needs to upgrade the memory of a XenServer host. Business requirements
state that this task can only be done during business hours. Which two steps must the administrator take
before shutting down a XenServer host in an environment that has high availability enabled without
affecting performance? (Choose two.)
A. Disable the host.
B. Evacuate the host.
C. Reset the pool master.
D. Disable high availability.
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Scenario: An administrator is planning to introduce 100 new virtual machines into the environment.
The administrator plans to use XenServer templates and duplication mechanisms. What must the
administrator consider when deciding between the full copy and fast clone duplication mechanisms?
A. A template needs to be copied before it can be fast cloned.
B. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the full copy method may impact disk performance.
C. A virtual machine that is duplicated using the fast cloned method may impact disk performance.
D. A template created on local storage can be duplicated by using the full copy method by any host in the
pool.
Answer: C

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NO.11 An administrator needs to apply an update to a XenServer pool, but needs to control the update path
and the virtual machine migration. What does the administrator need to do to achieve this?
A. Update all hosts in the pool using the xe CLI.
B. Use the Install Update wizard to update the pool.
C. Update each host individually starting with the pool master.
D. Select manual update mode when updating the pool in XenCenter.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator needs to export a virtual machine to an NFS share mounted on a XenServer host.
Which xe CLI command does the administrator need to execute from a remote machine to perform the
virtual machine export?
A. xe vm-export -h <hostname> filename=<pathname_of_file>
B. xe vm-export -h <hostname> -u <root> -pw <password> vm=<vm_name>
C. xe vm-export -h <hostname> -u <root> -pw <password> filename=<pathname_of_file>
D. xe vm-export -h <hostname> -u <root> -pw <password> vm=<vm_name>
filename=<pathname_of_file>
Answer: D

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NO.13 What must be true in order to integrate Active Directory authentication with a XenServer host?
A. LDAP port 389 is open for inbound traffic to the XenServer host.
B. The Active Directory administrator account is created locally on the XenServer host.
C. The same DNS server is used for both the Active Directory server and the XenServer host.
D. RAS authentication is used for communication between the Active Directory server and the XenServer
host.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Scenario: An administrator is planning to upgrade the RAM in a XenServer host. Due to business
restrictions, the host must be shut down during normal business hours. High availability is enabled in the
XenServer resource pool. Which step does the administrator need to take before shutting down the
XenServer host to allow the virtual machines to run after the host is shut down?
A. Disable high availability.
B. Export the virtual machines.
C. Place the host in maintenance mode.
D. Copy the virtual machines to another host.
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator is setting up the XenServer hosts in an environment to boot from SAN. In which BIOS
would the administrator go to enable XenServer to boot from SAN.?
A. Host
B. Array controller
C. Network interface card
D. Primary host bus adapter
Answer: D

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NO.16 Scenario: An administrator is adding a new host to a XenServer resource pool. XenServer is already
installed on the host, but the NTP server settings are configured incorrectly on the host. Which file can the
administrator edit to adjust the NTP server settings on the new XenServer host?
A. /etc/ntp.conf
B. /etc/ntp/keys
C. /etc/init.d/ntpd
D. /etc/ntp/step-tickers
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator was given new security rules and now needs to remove specific permissions from the
users in the VM Admin Role Based Access Control group. How can the administrator remove the specific
permissions from the VM Admin user group?
A. Reset the VM Admin user group back to the default permissions.
B. Delete the registry key that applies to the specific permissions that need to be removed.
C. Run the xe subject-role-remove uuid=<subject UUID> role-name=vm.pool_migrate XenServer
command.
D. Remove the specific permissions from the Active Directory user group associated with the VM Admin
user group.
Answer: C

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NO.18 An administrator cloned a template into a virtual machine and then converted it back into a template.
Which action must be performed on the disks to restore expected levels of disk performance?
A. Run SysPrep
B. Complete a full copy
C. Execute a fast clone
D. Suspend before cloning
Answer: B

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NO.19 An administrator needs to run commands to specify __________ to configure email alerts at the host
level. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. alarm_priority on the host
B. alarm_priority on the virtual machine
C. the sender email address and SMTP server
D. the recipient email address and SMTP server
Answer: D

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NO.20 An administrator needs to authenticate all users when they log into the XenServer pool using their
Windows credentials. What is the first step the administrator must take to achieve this?
A. Join the XenServer pool to the domain.
B. Add each user to the Users tab in XenCenter.
C. Create a XenServer user group within Active Directory.
D. Create Active Directory accounts for the XenServer users.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-350
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix NetScaler 10 Essentials and Networking)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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Exam Code: 156-915.65
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Accelerated CCSE NGX R65 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 204 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A security audit has determined that your unpatched web application server is revealing the fact that it
accesses a SQL server. You believe that you have enabled the proper SmartDefense setting but would
like to verify this fact using SmartView Tracker. Which of the following entries confirms the proper blocking
of this leaked information to an attacker?
A."Fingerprint Scrambling: Changed [SQL] to [Perl]"
B."HTTP response spoofing: remove signature [SQL Server]"
C."Concealed HTTP response [SQL Server]. (Error Code WSE0160003)"
D."ASCII Only Response Header detected: SQL"
Answer:C

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NO.2 When a user selects to allow Hotspot, SecureClient modifies the Desktop Security Policy and/or Hub
Mode routing to enable Hotspot registration. Which of the following is NOT true concerning this
modification?
A.The modification is restricted by time.
B.The number of IP addresses accessed is not restricted.
C.IP addresses accessed during registration are recorded.
D.Ports accessed during registration are recorded.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Where do you enable popup alerts for SmartDefense settings that have detected suspicious activity?
A.In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Alerts
B.In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Custom Commands
C.In SmartDashboard, edit the Gateway object, select SmartDefense > Alerts
D.In SmartDashboard, select Global Properties > Log and Alert > Alert Commands
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which operating system is not supported by SecureClient?
A.MacOS X
B.Windows XP SP2
C.Windows 2003 Professional
D.IPSO 3.9
Answer:D

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NO.5 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A.None, all versions require a license upgrade
B.VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
C.VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
D.VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which of the following would NOT be a reason for beginning with a fresh installation of VPN-1 NGX R65,
instead of upgrading a previous version to VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.You see a more logical way to organize your rules and objects.
B.You want to keep your Check Point configuration.
C.Your Security Policy includes rules and objects whose purpose you do not know.
D.Objects and rules' naming conventions have changed over time.
Answer:B

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NO.7 Match each of the following commands to their correct function. Each command only has one function
listed.
A.C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
B.C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C.C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D.C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
Answer:A

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NO.8 Match the remote-access VPN Connection mode features with their descriptions:
A.A 3, B 4, C 2, D 1
B.A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1
C.A 2, B 4, C 3, D 1
D.A 1, B 3, C 4, D 2
Answer:B

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NO.9 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as critical devices?
A.Security Policy status
B.fw.d
C.protect.exe
D.PROT_SRV.EXE
Answer:A

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NO.10 Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change orders,
and check order status. You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web
servers were protected from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing
indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. You have checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab,
and installed the Security Policy. What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A.Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
B.Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
C.Configure resource objects as Web servers, and use them in the rules allowing HTTP traffic to the Web
servers.
D.The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
Answer:C

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NO.11 Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the
Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A.fw ver
B.fw stat
C.fw ctl pstat
D.cpstat fwd
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A.Eventia Reporter Client
B.SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
C.SmartCenter Server
D.Eventia Reporter Server
Answer:B

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NO.13 When configuring VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct?
A.The decision on which MEP Security Gateway to use is made on the remote gateway's side (non-MEP
side).
B.MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server.
C.MEP VPN Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines.
D.If one Gateway fails, the synchronized connection fails over to another Gateway and the connection
continues.
Answer:A

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NO.14 How do you recover communications between your SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway if you
"lock" yourself out via a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A.cpstop
B.fw unload policy
C.fw delete all.all
D.fw unloadlocal
Answer:D

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NO.15 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B.User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C.Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D.Password, SmartCenter Server IP
Answer:B

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NO.16 How do you block some seldom-used FTP commands, such as CWD, and FIND from passing through
the Gateway?
A.Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.
B.Add the restricted commands to the aftpd.conf file in the SmartCenter Server.
C.Configure the restricted FTP commands in the Security Servers screen of the Global properties.
D.Enable FTP Bounce checking in SmartDefense.
Answer:A

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NO.17 Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports
in Eventia Reporter?
A.In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the VPN-1 Security Gateway object
B.In Eventia Reporter, under Express > Network Activity
C.In Eventia Reporter, under Standard > Custom
D.In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
Answer:A

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NO.18 Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A.Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
B.You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
C.You checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
D.Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
Answer:B

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NO.19 You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log.
How do you view Security Administrator activity?
A.SmartView Tracker in Active Mode
B.SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
C.SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the
SmartCenter Server's Operating System.
D.SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
Answer:B

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NO.20 When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues
need to be considered? (1) Each member must have a unique source IP address (2) Every interface on
each member requires a unique IP address (3) All VTIs going to the same remote peer must have the
same name. (4) Custer IP addresses are required.
A.2 & 3
B.1, 3, & 4
C.1, 2, 3 & 4
D.1, 2, and 4
Answer:C

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NO.1 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway running on Secure
Platform?
A. splat_accel off
B. fwacceX off
C. perf_pack off
D. fwaceel off
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

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NO.6 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David
use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

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NO.11 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel interface (VT1) to route traffic?
A. Subnet-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Host-based VPN
D. Domain-based VPN
Answer: B

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NO.14 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are Connectra administrator. Your users complain that their outlook Web Access is running
extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience configures to worsen. You suspect it could be a
logging problem. Which of the following log file does CheckPoint recommended you purge?
A. Httpd*.log
B. Event_ws.log
C. Mod_ws_owd.log
D. Alert_owd.log
Answer: A

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NO.16 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

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NO.17 With Eventia Analyzer, what is the analyzer Server's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Displays received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign seventy levels to events.
Answer: B

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NO.18 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.19 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

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NO.20 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

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NO.22 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command
will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
D. VTIs are only supported on Secure Platform.
Answer: C

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NO.24 The We-Make-Widgets
company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote
offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning and create a
profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge appliance to
the remote Office profile Using the output below.
A. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
C. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
Answer: B

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NO.25 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.26 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.27 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

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NO.28 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

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NO.29 The London office just upgraded their DNS Gateway needs with the new settings. What would be the
best way for Henry to change the DNS settings for the London s Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada profile
B. Edit the gateways DNS settings from the edit gateway, then selecting the DNS tab
C. DNS settings for that gateway cannot be changed
D. Edit the Europe profile
Answer: B

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NO.30 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-215-71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 563 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

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NO.2 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.3 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

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NO.4 Implied Rules

NO.5 Gateway route table

NO.6 Blocked connections

NO.7 SmartView Tracker audit logs

NO.8 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:
A.A license can be taken from one Security Management server and given to another Security
Management Server.
B.Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
C.Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
D.The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of security Gateway.Each module s
license has a unique IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3. You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4. You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5. Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6. What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7. In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8. The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9. The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10. You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

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11. The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12. You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e mpor ar ¡± rule usi ng Smar t Dashboard and sel ect hi de ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13. The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.10 IPS Profiles

NO.11 SIC certificates

NO.12 Manual NAT rules

NO.13 SmartView Tracker traffic logs

NO.14 Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?
1) Simplified mode Rule Bases
2) Traditional mode Rule Bases

NO.15 VPN communities

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Exam Code: 156-315-71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 480 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two
cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving
strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization cluster link
(cross-over cable).
Which of the following commands is the best for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?
A. telnet <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
B. arping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
C. ifconfig a
D. Ping <IP address of the synchronization interface on the other cluster member>
Answer: B

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NO.2 John is configuring a new R71 Gateway cluster but he can not configure the cluster as Third Party IP
Clustering because this option is not available in Gateway Cluster Properties: What's happening?
A. John is not using third party hardware as IP Clustering is part of Check Point's IP Appliance B .Third
Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
B. ClusterXL needs to be unselected to permit 3rd party clustering configuration.
C. John has an invalid ClusterXL license.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You need to publish SecurePlatform routes using the ospf routing protocol. What is the correct
command structure, once entering the route command, to implement ospf successfully?
A. Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing
B. ip route ospf
ospf network1
ospf network2
C. Enable
Configure terminal
Router ospf [id]
Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]
D. Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly. Which command line tool can you
use?
A. cphaconf state
B. cphaprob state
C. cphainfo-s
D. cphastart -status
Answer: B

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NO.5 Check point Clustering protocol, works on:
A. UDP 8116
B. UDP 500
C. TCP 8116
D. TCP 19864
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a feature of ClusterXL?
A. Enhanced throughput in all ClusterXL modes (2 gateway cluster compared with 1 gateway)
B. Transparent failover in case of device failures
C. Zero downtime for mission-critical environments with State Synchronization
D. Transparent upgrades
Answer: C

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NO.7 ________is a proprietary Check Point protocol. it is the basis for Check Point ClusterXL inter-module
communication.
A. RDP
B. CCP
C. CKPP
D. HA OPCODE
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify automatic
uploads of reports to a central FTP server?
A. Smart Dashboard Log Consolidator
B. Security Management Server
C. Smart Reporter Database
D. Smart Reporter
Answer: D

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NO.9 When you check Web Server in a host-node object, what happens to the host?
A. The Web server daemon is enabled on the host.
B. More granular controls are added to the host, in addition to Web Intelligence tab settings.
C. You can specify allowed ports in the Web server's node-object properties. You then do not need to list
all allowed ports in the Rule Base.
D. IPS Web Intelligence is enabled to check on the host.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a task of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Look for patterns according to the installed Event Policy.
C. Assign a severity level to an event
D. Display the received events.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Control connections between the Security Management Server and the Gateway are not encrypted by
the VPN Community. How are these connections secured?
A. They are encrypted and authenticated using SIC.
B. They are not encrypted, but are authenticated by the Gateway
C. They are secured by PPTP
D. They are not secured.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are establishing a ClusterXL environment, with the following topology: External interfaces
192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.2 connect to a VLAN switch. The upstream router connects to the same
VLAN switch. Internal interfaces 172.16 10.1 and 172.16.10.2 connect to a hub. 10.10.10.0 is the
synchronization network. The Security Management Server is located on the internal network with IP
172.16.10.3. What is the problem with this configuration?
A. There is an IP address conflict
B. The Security Management Server must be in the dedicated synchronization network, not the internal
network.
C. The Cluster interface names must be identical across all cluster members.
D. Cluster members cannot use the VLAN switch. They must use hubs.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setsync 0
B. fw ctl sysnstat stop
C. fw ctl sysnstat off
D. fw ctl setsyns off
Answer: D

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NO.14 How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?
A. Ping the sync interface
B. if list -renew
C. Broadcast storm
D. Gratuitous ARP
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120
seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection
sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following commands can be used to stop Management portal services?
A. fw stopportal
B. cpportalstop
C. cpstop / portal
D. smartportalstop
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which procedure creates a new administrator in SmartWorkflow?
A. Run cpconfig, supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
B. In SmartDashboard, click SmartWorkflow / Enable SmartWorkflow and the Enable SmartWorkflow
wizard will start. Supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions
when prompted.
C. On the Provider-1 primary MDS, run cpconfig, supply the Login Name, Profile Properties, Name,
Access Applications and Permissions.
D. In SmartDashboard, click Users and Administrators right click Administrators / New Administrator and
supply the Login Name. Profile Properties, Name, Access Applications and Permissions.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Organizations are sometimes faced with the need to locate cluster members in different geographic
locations that are distant from each other. A typical example is replicated data centers whose location is
widely separated for disaster recovery purposes.
What are the restrictions of this solution?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 150 ms latency
(ITU Standard G.114).
C. There is one restriction: The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100 ms latency.
D. There are two restrictions: 1. The synchronization network must guarantee no more than 100ms
latency and no more than 5% packet loss. 2. The synchronization network may only include switches and
hubs.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?
A. LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID
B. DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS
C. LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID
D. LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID
Answer: B

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NO.20 Refer to Exhibit:
Match the ClusterXL Modes with their configurations
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
B. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
C. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CAT-140
Exam Name: CA (CA SiteMinder r12 Professional Exam)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Named expressions enable you to:
A. Examine core components.
B. Define reusable expressions.
C. Define the permissions on reports
D. Define ODBC user directory attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which feature applies to application roles?
A. They are limited to a single directory or directory type.
B. They define which resources, or group of resources, an application can access.
C. They are a logical representation of a resource and how CA SiteMinder protects it.
D. They define a set of users who have access to an application resource or a group of application
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Answer: D

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NO.3 When using the Active Directory namespace, which Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (IDAP)
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A. IDAP paging
B. IDAP referrals
C. IDAP sorting operations
D. SSL connectivity using a native Windows Certificate database
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CAT-080
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NO.1 When you create a custom search in the OneClick Console, the Matches Pattern comparison type is
available for text attributes. How do you specify the attribute value for this comparison type?
A. Variables or clauses
B. Community strings or operators
C. Stored procedures or algorithms
D. Wildcards or regular expressions
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is located in the partslist directory and contains the instructions that processed uses to start and
manage a specific process.?
A. IDB Files
B. server.xml
C. Proxy model
D. SystemEDGE agent
Answer: A

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NO.3 The two types of Global Collections in CA Spectrum are:
A. Public and private.
B. Static and dynamic.
C. Simple and complex.
D. Out-of-the-box and custom.
Answer: B

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NO.4 If you want to import or export preferences from another user or group, you must have the privilege to
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A. Users tab.
B. Groups tab.
C. Privileges tab.
D. Information tab.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In the Contents pane of the OneClick Console, which tab displays a high-level schematic diagram of the
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A. List
B. Locater
C. Explorer
D. Topology
Answer: D

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